Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
10.06.2025 07:53
You'll usually find your answer there.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What's your take on Eternal Sunshine of the Spotless Mind? How has it affected you?
There's no rule.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Teens like me, what are your expectations when entering adulthood?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.